• “(e) introduce onto land or ice shelves or sea ice or into water in Antarctica any living organism (including, but not limited to, any species of animal, plant, or micro-organism) not native to that area; or”.

• “(ea) introduce onto land or ice shelves or sea ice or into water in Antarctica any living bird; or”.

“Publicly available information”.

“Information that is not publicly available”.

• “(g) to access, use, or disclose it for statistical or research purposes, provided that the information accessed, used, or disclosed—

  • “(i) does not identify any person; and

  • “(ii) is not published in any form that could reasonably be expected to identify any person:

• “(h) to authorise other persons to access and use it for statistical or research purposes, provided that the information used—

  • “(i) does not identify any person; and

  • “(ii) is not published in any form that could reasonably be expected to identify any person.”

“Meaning of publicly available

• “(7) In this section and section 142A(5)(a), information that is publicly available means information that—

  • “(a) comes directly or indirectly from a source that is, or was at the time of collection, available to the public; or

  • “(b) the Director-General believes on reasonable grounds is available to the public.”

• “(iii) a person accredited for a particular function under section 103(7):”.

• “(iii) a person accredited for a particular function under section 103(7):”.

• “(f) a certificate purporting to be signed by the principal officer of a regional council stating that a person specified in the certificate is—

  • “(i) an authorised person appointed under section 103(3) in relation to a regional pest management plan or a regional pathway management plan or a small-scale management programme specified or described in, or attached to, the certificate; or

  • “(ii) a person accredited for a particular function under section 103(7):”.

• “(2) A person applying for registration of a name change must—

  • “(a) complete the standard form and provide it to the Registrar-General; and

  • “(b) pay the prescribed fee (if any); and

  • “(c) deposit 1 of the following with the Registrar-General:

    • “(i) a statutory declaration made, in accordance with subsection (3), by an eligible person or the guardian of an eligible person (accompanied by the eligible person’s written consent if the eligible person is 16 years of age or older and the application was made by the eligible person’s guardian); or

    • “(ii) a deed poll executed before 1 September 1995, evidencing any change in the eligible person’s names; or

    • “(iii) a copy of a deed poll executed and filed in an office of the High Court before 1 September 1995 and certified by a Registrar of the court in which it was filed.”

• “(3A) The Registrar-General may require a person before whom the statutory declaration referred to in subsection (2)(c)(i) is made—

  • “(a) to verify the identity of the eligible person or the guardian of the eligible person, or both, in a manner specified by the Registrar-General; and

  • “(b) to state whether he or she is satisfied of the identity of the eligible person or the guardian of the eligible person, or both.”

• “(4A) The Registrar-General may require a person applying for registration of a name change to provide, with the standard form referred to in subsection (2)(a) or separately, any means of identification that is reasonably necessary to confirm the identity of the eligible person or the guardian of the eligible person, or both.”

• “(1) The Tribunal consists of a chairperson and at least 2, but not more than 5, other persons.”

• “(iv) if the Commissioner decides to refer a complaint to the Deputy Commissioner.”

• “(i) he or she has previously considered the subject matter of the complaint, and the complaint fails to raise any issue of significance that he or she has not previously considered.”

“79V Search warrants in relation to offences against section 79T or 79U

• “(1) An issuing officer (within the meaning of section 3 of the Search and Surveillance Act 2012) may issue a search warrant in relation to a place, vehicle, or other thing if, on application made by a constable in the manner provided in subpart 3 of Part 4 of that Act, he or she is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds—

  • “(a) to suspect that an offence has been, is being, or will be committed against section 79T or 79U; and

  • “(b) to believe that the search will find evidential material in respect of the offence in the place, vehicle, or other thing.

  “(2) The provisions of Part 4 of the Search and Surveillance Act 2012 apply.

  “(3) Despite subsection (2), sections 118 and 119 of the Search and Surveillance Act 2012 apply only in respect of a constable.”

• “(d) in the case of an alleged infringement offence that is a stationary vehicle offence, include a summary of the provisions of section 133A.”

79V

Constable may obtain and execute a search warrant to search for evidence of offence against section 79T or 79U of Land Transport Act 1998

All (except that sections 118 and 119 apply to constables only)

• “(f) the functions and powers of an enforcement authority under the Land Transport Act 1998 in relation to prosecuting infringement offences under that Act that relate to—

  • “(i) the use of special vehicle lanes within Auckland:

  • “(ii) a failure to pay a public transport service fare:”.

“legal professional privilege means the privilege that a person—

• “(a) has under section 54 or 56 of the Evidence Act 2006 to require communications or information not to be disclosed in a proceeding; or

• “(b) would have under section 54 or 56 of the Evidence Act 2006 to require communications or information not to be disclosed in a proceeding, if a proceeding were to be instituted”.

• “(6) Any information held by an independent contractor engaged by any local authority in his or her capacity as an independent contractor is, for purposes of this Act, deemed to be held by the local authority.”

• “(1AA) A request under subsection (1)—

  • “(a) may be made in any form and communicated by any means (including orally); and

  • “(b) does not need to refer to this Act.”

• “(4) A local authority to which an oral request is made under subsection (1) may, if written clarification is reasonably necessary, ask the person requesting the information to put the request in writing to clarify the request.

• “(5) If the person requesting the information declines or is unable to put the oral request in writing, the local authority must record its understanding of the request, and provide a copy of the record to the person.”

• “(7) If a request (the original request) is amended or clarified after the date on which it is received, the local authority that receives the request may treat the amended or clarified request as a new request that, for the purposes of subsection (1), replaces the original request.

• “(8) However, subsection (7) does not apply if—

  • “(a) the original request is amended or clarified because the local authority to which the request was made sought an amendment to, or a clarification of, the request; and

  • “(b) the local authority did not seek that amendment or clarification within 7 working days after receiving the original request.”

• “(1A) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), information made available in any of the ways listed in subsection (1) may be made available in electronic form or by electronic means.”

• “(4) For the purposes of subsection (1)(a), a refusal to make official information available includes, without limitation, a failure by the local authority to comply with section 13(1)—

  • “(a) as soon as is reasonably practicable, or at the latest within 20 working days, after receiving the request; or

  • “(b) within an extended time limit notified under section 14(3) to the person who requested the information.”

• “(6) If an Ombudsman receives a complaint that a local authority has refused to make official information available for any of the reasons specified in section 17(1)(e) to (g), the Ombudsman may notify the Chief Archivist appointed under the Public Records Act 2005.”

• “(b) may not contract out the compliance and enforcement functions specified in subsection (1)(a)(vi) unless—

  • “(i) the functions are contracted out to the NAIT organisation's subsidiary or holding company; or

  • “(ii) the functions are compliance functions that relate to the provision of information and training.”

• “(3A) When contracting out compliance and enforcement functions under subsection (3)(b), the NAIT organisation remains responsible and accountable for the performance of those functions.

• “(3B) In subsection (3), holding company and subsidiary have the meanings given by section 5 of the Companies Act 1993.”

• “(8) Where proceedings are taken against the person from whom the item was seized within 6 months of the seizure of the item, the item must, when the proceedings are completed, be returned to that person, unless the court, if it enters a conviction, directs that the item must be forfeited to the Crown.”

“legal professional privilege means the privilege that a person—

• “(a) has under section 54 or 56 of the Evidence Act 2006 to require communications or information not to be disclosed in a proceeding; or

• “(b) would have under section 54 or 56 of the Evidence Act 2006 to require communications or information not to be disclosed in a proceeding if a proceeding were to be instituted”.

• “(1AA) A request under subsection (1)—

  • “(a) may be made in any form and communicated by any means (including orally); and

  • “(b) does not need to refer to this Act.”

• “(4) A department or Minister of the Crown or organisation to which an oral request is made under subsection (1) may, if written clarification is reasonably necessary, ask the person making the request to put the request in writing to clarify the request.

• “(5) If the person declines or is unable to put the request in writing, the department or Minister of the Crown or organisation must record its understanding of the request and provide a copy of the record to the person.”

• “(1AA) If a request (the original request) is amended or clarified after the date on which it is received, the department or Minister of the Crown or organisation that receives the request may treat the amended or clarified request as a new request that, for the purposes of subsection (1), replaces the original request.

• “(1AB) However, subsection (1AA) does not apply if—

  • “(a) the original request is amended or clarified because the department or Minister of the Crown or organisation to which the request was made sought an amendment to, or a clarification of, the request; and

  • “(b) the department or Minister of the Crown or organisation did not seek that amendment or clarification within 7 working days after receiving the original request.”

• “(1A) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), information made available in any of the ways listed under subsection (1) may be made available in electronic form or by electronic means.”

• “(4) For the purposes of subsection (1)(a), a refusal to make official information available includes, without limitation, a failure by a department or Minister of the Crown or organisation to comply with section 15(1)—

  • “(a) as soon as is reasonably practicable, or at the latest within 20 working days, after receiving a request; or

  • “(b) within an extended time limit notified under section 15A(3) to the person who requested the information.”

• “(6) If an Ombudsman receives a complaint that a department or Minister of the Crown or organisation has refused to make official information available for any of the reasons specified in section 18(e) to (g), the Ombudsman may notify the Chief Archivist appointed under the Public Records Act 2005.”

“17 Ombudsman may refuse to investigate complaint

• “(1) An Ombudsman may refuse to investigate or further investigate a complaint if it appears to the Ombudsman that,—

  • “(a) under the law or existing administrative practice, the complainant has an adequate remedy or right of appeal (other than the right to petition the House of Representatives) and it is, or would have been, reasonable for the complainant to resort to that remedy or right of appeal; or

  • “(b) the complaint relates to a decision, recommendation, act, or omission that the complainant has known about for more than 12 months; or

  • “(c) the subject matter of the complaint is trivial; or

  • “(d) the complaint is frivolous or vexatious or is not made in good faith; or

  • “(e) the complainant does not have a sufficient personal interest in the subject matter of the complaint; or

  • “(f) having regard to all the circumstances of the case,—

    • “(i) following preliminary inquiries, an investigation is unnecessary; or

    • “(ii) having commenced an investigation, further investigation is unnecessary.

  “(2) If an Ombudsman refuses to investigate or further investigate a complaint, the Ombudsman must inform the complainant of the decision and give his or her reasons for it.”

• “(5) The Minister may, with the prior written agreement of a local authority, declare by notice in the Gazette that a reserve, or any part of a reserve,—

  • “(a) ceases to be vested in and administered by the local authority and instead vests in the Crown; and

  • “(b) has such classification under this Act as may be specified in the Gazette notice, or be included in any existing reserve under this Act; and

  • “(c) be administered in accordance with that classification.

• “(6) The notice must be registered in the office of the Registrar-General of Land.”

• “(1) A person or an agency that made submissions as part of the special consultative procedure on a draft local alcohol policy may, within 30 days of the public notification of the resulting provisional local alcohol policy, appeal to the licensing authority against any element of that provisional local alcohol policy.

• “(2) The Police or a Medical Officer of Health may, within 30 days of the public notification of the resulting provisional local alcohol policy, appeal to the licensing authority against any element of that provisional local alcohol policy.”

• “(4) This subsection applies to an application—

  • “(a) for a licence for premises that is of the same kind as the licence currently in force for those premises; and

  • “(b) in which the conditions sought are the same as apply to that licence.

• “(4A) In the case of an application to which subsection (4) applies, the ground for an objection may not relate to any matter other than the suitability of the applicant.”

“chief executive, in any provision, means the chief executive of the department responsible for the administration of that provision”.

“Minister, in any provision, means the Minister of the Crown who, under the authority of any warrant or with the authority of the Prime Minister, is for the time being responsible for the administration of that provision”.

• “(2) If a foreign fishing craft is used in contravention of subsection (1), the owner, the master, and every crew member of the craft commits an offence and are each liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $250,000.”

• “(k) providing that a breach of any regulation made under this section is an offence and imposing fines as penalties for any such offences, not exceeding,—

  • “(i) in the case of the owner or master or any other crew member of an unlicensed foreign fishing craft, $500,000; and

  • “(ii) in the case of the licensee or master or any other crew member of a licensed foreign fishing craft, $250,000:”.